Click here👆to get an answer to your question ️ A solution of the equation (1 tan x )(1 tan x) sec^2x 2^tan^2 = 0 , where x lies in the interval pi2, pi2 is given by$$\int sec^2x \tan^2x dx = tan^2x 2\int \sec^2x \tan^2x dx$$ You can move the $ 2\int \sec^2x \tan^2x dx$ to the left hand side of the equation by addition $$\int \sec^2x \tan^2x dx 2\int \sec^2x \tan^2x dx= tan^2x c, c\in\mathbb{R}$$ Note that once we have a side without an integral on it you need to include a constant of integrationRewrite sec(x) sec ( x) in terms of sines and cosines Rewrite tan(x) tan ( x) in terms of sines and cosines Multiply by the reciprocal of the fraction to divide by 1 cos(x) 1 cos ( x) Write cos(x) cos ( x) as a fraction with denominator 1 1 Cancel the common factor of cos(x) cos ( x)
Integrate Sec 2x Method 2